buckz71

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About buckz71

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  1. The ex-husband was awarded the marital property in the divorce decree. The mortgage deed contains the name of the husband and the wife. The mortgage loan was under the name of the wife ONLY. More than 3 years has past and the ex-husband announced 2 weeks ago that he has built another house in another county and the marital property is about to go through foreclosure. Again, this mortgage loan is in the ex-wife's name ONLY. The collection agency has apparently been searching for the ex-wife but no communication has yet been made. Until two weeks ago, she was not aware that the property was in collections. All correspondences have been to the property address even though it was addressed to her. Nothing was ever given to her to advise of the situation prior to two weeks ago. It is understood that the mortgage company has compiled a large amount of fees and penalties associated with the bad debt. The rumor is that this group of investors buy bad debt, sues for everything they can get from the debtor, forecloses on the property to obtain some insurance policy, and then resale's the property at the market value. The ex-wife would not object to paying off the balance on the loan to save her credit but the collection agency does not want to talk with her unless they get all of her personal information first. The questions needing answered are as follows: 1) What are the laws associated with the Ex-husband not transferring the debt to himself and abandoning the property even though the divorce decree was clear that this was his responsibility? 2) Is there anything more than contempt of court that the ex-husband can be held responsible for? 3) What type of lawyer should the ex-wife hire? 4) Can the new husband be held liable for any of the debt from the previous marriage and this foreclosure process?