johnjpjackson

A person owns a home in Washington, DC and has a mortgage on it. They relocate to Massachusetts. One month later, they refinance the DC home and get a new mortgage, claiming the DC property is still their primary residence, even though they're now residing in Massachusetts. That seems like it was fraud. But there's more. A year later, while still living in Massachusetts, they buy a home in Massachusetts. They obtain a mortgage to fund their purchase for this newly acquired home. For this new mortgage, they claim this will be their primary residence. They then proceed to truly live in this new Massachusetts home as their primary residence. The question is, has this person comitted any wrongdoing with respect to the mortgage they acquired for the Massachusetts home? Did they defraud the Massachusetts lender, or have they only defrauded the DC lender?