nrgins

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About nrgins

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  1. I've been monitoring my credit score through Credit Karma for some time, and they focus on revolving credit balance compared to credit limit, number of inquiries, negative marks, etc. Today, I looked at my FICO score (Score 9) through Wells Fargo, which uses Experian. Along with the basic stuff, one of the negative factors they cited was: "Too many consumer finance company accounts." I'd never heard of that before! I'd heard, of course, that revolving balances can affect your score; but I never heard that having too many consumer finance company accounts can affect your score. By "consumer finance company accounts," I assume they mean store credit cards, since I don't have any finance company loans. So that doesn't make sense. Why would having too many store credit cards be a negative, if the balances aren't high? On the other hand, I do have a loan from "Lending Club," and another one from "Marcus Loans" (a subsidiary of Goldman Sachs). Could that be what is meant by "Consumer Finance Company Accounts"? Thanks!
  2. I am talking about whether they SOLD the debt or still own it, that's all. If they sold the debt to a JDB, then it's no longer theirs.
  3. OK, that makes sense -- provided they haven't written off the debt.
  4. Yes, he had insurance at the time. But, since the doctor wrote off the debt, and it's now in the hands of a collection agency, wouldn't that not apply anymore, since it wouldn't be the doctor giving him the "discount"?
  5. I'm sure he'd rather get a PFD, even if it means paying the full amount. I mean, it's only $800, and the debt is only a year old. Would definitely be worth it. Any advice on getting a PFD?
  6. My son (an adult) owed $800 to a doctor's office which he didn't pay because at the time he thought it was an unfair charge. He didn't realize it would go on his credit report, etc. The debt was sent to a collection agency for payment, and now he wants to pay it so that at least his credit report will show that it was paid, even though it will still be a black mark on his credit report for some time. (The debt is only 1 year old.) I was wondering if a CA would be willing to accept a smaller payment in exchange for the debt being paid in one payment. Would be interested in people's opinions about whether this would be possible; what amounts they might accept; and any tips for how to negotiate with collection agencies. Also, is it possible to have the collection agency remove it from his credit report altogether in exchange for payment? Thanks!
  7. OK, thanks for the clarification. I thought that since the SOL for lawsuits begins again when you make a payment to the collection agency, that the same would be true for the 7 year reporting period. I realize that the ORIGINAL debt would fall off after 7 years regardless. But I thought the collection account would remain for 7 years from the date of the last activity to the collection agency. But I guess that's not the case.
  8. Actually, if he pays them it'll be on his account for 7 more years, since the 7-year clock starts on the date of last activity, and the payoff would be the last activity. So he'd actually be adding 5 more years to the item staying on his credit report.
  9. I called the Hardship department of all my credit cards years ago when I was going through a hard time. They didn't close the account. What they did was they allowed me to make lower monthly payments for six months. That helped a lot.
  10. OK, just got off the phone with them. Turns out it was just a computer thing. A few years back I got a partial deferment on the account, allowing me to me a smaller monthly payment for several months when I was having some financial difficulty. As a result of that, the loan now went past the original closing date (4 years from start date), so their computer system "closed out the account," and shows the full amount due. I spoke with the branch manager, and she said not to worry about what the computer shows, to just continue to make the monthly payment until it's paid off. She said normally they'd refinance it for the amount that's left; but because I got the deferment, they can't refinance it. I did ask her specifically about the acceleration, if that had happened, and she said, "Oh no, trust me, you'd know if we accelerated your account. That's more of a legal thing, and you would know well in advance. But you're only past due for May, so, no, we didn't do that." So, all's well that ends well, it seems. Thanks a lot for your assistance. Even if it turned out to not be the acceleration thing, it was still helpful to have some idea about what it might have been. Thanks!
  11. I believe there was some listing of collateral, such as furniture and appliances, etc. But they're not a lienholder on my vehicle or anything. In any case, my concern is either: a) getting it worked out with them, or b ) paying it before it negatively affects my credit report. I don't think it'll come to collections either way. But I'm concerned about it affecting my credit report and how long I have to pay it before it does, assuming they accelerated the loan. And does a loan acceleration, in and of itself, negatively affect one's credit report?
  12. I'm pretty sure I don't have the original documents. Not sure what my options are at this point except just to pay the full balance before it's 30 days past due? And even if they enacted the "acceleration clause", it had to have been recently, since my last statement from them showed everything was fine. So wouldn't I have 30 days from the time the acceleration clause is enacted, since I'm currently current on the loan? Thanks!
  13. It's not an auto loan. It's a personal loan. My only concern is the effect on my credit report.
  14. I took out a loan with CitiFinancial (now One Main Financial) 4 years ago, with payments of $175/mo. There were only about 4 payments left on the loan. However, I have been late with each payment the past few months, paying each about 3 weeks past the due date (which incurred late fees, which they deducted from my payment). I have never been 30 days late with a payment, and have made all payments. Last night I logged into my account to make a payment (for the payment that was due in May), and, instead of showing me a total due of $350 (May's past-due payment plus the currently-due June payment), it showed me a total due of $676, which is the balance of the loan. It also showed a Past Due amount of $676, with a Past Due Date in May. This is leading me to think that they defaulted my loan, and are now saying that I owe them the full amount. Obviously, I'm concerned about this affecting my credit report. I made the May payment last night, so now I'm technically "current" with my loan, as the June payment isn't due yet. I left them a message last night, and am planning on talking with them today. But I'd like to know what the law says before I get on the phone with them. Do they have to right to default a loan if I've never been 30 days late with a payment, even if I've been habitually late with my payments? Any advice given would be greatly appreciated. I am in the State of Texas. Thanks!
  15. I don't know. Might want to post that as a separate thread and see what kind of responses you get. Also might try the Post Judgment section of the forum. I would imagine they deal with those questions there all the time. BTW, what did the letter say? Seems strange that they'd send a letter before levying if you've already gotten a judgment. Or do you already have a judgment?? Are you sure it was from the sheriff's office? Sounds like some kind of a scam, to be honest. Sounds like it's a debt collector trying to scare you into paying by saying they're going to levy your account, and then just list a bunch of banks. That doesn't sound legitimate to me. Why don't you post what the letter actually says and we'll go from there. Also note whether or not you have a judgment or have been sued. All that information is important.