Cascadesss Posted April 25, 2003 Report Share Posted April 25, 2003 Here's a good one.... In So California I was running a corporation which went out of business. Both the corporation and I were named in a lawsuit and the plaintiff won in court, getting a judgment against the corp and I in 1997. However, it's not on my credit record and was not recorded in the county under my name. The plaintiff gave it to a CA in 1997 and all they have done was to write me a few letters. I haven't heard from them in a year or so.My question is.... if it wasn't recorded against me is it valid? The CA shows up on my credit report, but that didn't stop me from recently getting a new home loan. And by the way, we moved to Oregon in 1996.CaLawyer.... any comments or thoughts?Thanks,Cas [Edit by Cascadesss on Thursday, April 24, 2003 @ 07:54 PM] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LadynRed Posted April 25, 2003 Report Share Posted April 25, 2003 If they got the judgment against you in CA and have not done anything to domesticate it to Oregon, then there's nothing they can do, legally, to enforce collection on the foreign judgment. Was the judgment recorded at the court house ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascadesss Posted April 25, 2003 Author Report Share Posted April 25, 2003 All judgements are usually recorded at the county recorders office, and this one was not. That's how the CRA's get their info.Cas [Edit by Cascadesss on Friday, April 25, 2003 @ 08:52 AM] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LadynRed Posted April 25, 2003 Report Share Posted April 25, 2003 Yes.. I know. They have people trolling for public records or they use another agency who does nothing but sell public records data. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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