Anonymous Posted June 3, 2003 Report Share Posted June 3, 2003 I sent DV to RMA for a debt I didn't recognize. Turns out it was for ultrasound I had done 3/24/00 that had been denied by insurance. RMA sent me a hospital statement dated 3/30/00 with Code, Description & Amount. I know this is not proper validation since there is no signature. Is it HIPAA violation? Is RMA allowed to know what I do at the hospital?Good news is, I contacted the ins co & they are paying it (I have statement). [Edit by otto on Tuesday, June 3, 2003 @ 04:41 PM] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BrassFan Posted June 4, 2003 Report Share Posted June 4, 2003 <blockquote>Originally posted by ottoI know this is not proper validation since there is no signature. Is it HIPAA violation? Is RMA allowed to know what I do at the hospital?</blockquote>I would assume it's ok. After all, if they didn't have a record of what was done, how would they be able to validate the debt? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sontag Posted June 4, 2003 Report Share Posted June 4, 2003 What constitutes proper validation of a medical debt? I've just received a validation response with the following: Physician Name Payments/Adjustment(my insurance payed a percentage) Diagnosis Code Date of Service Client Tax ID.Is this complete? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
vonniegirl Posted June 5, 2003 Report Share Posted June 5, 2003 Did you receive anything with your signature on it saying you would be responsible for the debt if the insurance company does not pay :notsure: Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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