sheepy Posted October 26, 2004 Report Share Posted October 26, 2004 The CA sent a copy of a statement from the OC and that is all they sent. This is a medical bill. Do I respond with a second VL?BTW-I did pay this CA $100 and it shows on the statement that $65 of that was collection pmt and the other $35 was Collection fee. Wow! Now I see why these CAs hound you, they are making some bucks! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Mcgrath Posted October 26, 2004 Report Share Posted October 26, 2004 I don't understand the question totaly. But that is not validation, see FTC vs Wollman. Print it out and send that to them in the letter. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
breathing_easier Posted October 26, 2004 Report Share Posted October 26, 2004 The CA sent a copy of a statement from the OC and that is all they sent. This is a medical bill. Do I respond with a second VL?I think you're talking about a DV (debt validation) letter? No, a statement is not sufficient validation. If they continue collection activity, then I would send a second DV letter CMRRR, more strongly worded than the first, advising them that they must provide valid proof that this alleged debt is yours and that they have the right to collect. If they ignore your letter and continue collection activity then you may want to consider sending an Intent to Sue (ITS) letter, but only if you plan to actually file suit if they don't comply. Also, with a medical bill HIPPA laws apply. Use the Search function at the top of this page to search this board using the term HIPPA for more information. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sheepy Posted October 26, 2004 Author Report Share Posted October 26, 2004 Yes, DV. My lack of sleep and 3 kids are turning my brain to mush.I'll look into hippa also.Thank you. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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