hannah Posted March 9, 2005 Report Share Posted March 9, 2005 I am being sued by a "factoring company" for a debt on an old cc. Since it was sold to the "factoring company", I disputed the OC TL with all 3 cra's. Checked my cr yesterday and it is now marked Paid collection with the OC. What does this mean? Is it something I can show in court?Checked my cr again today. The account is now listed as another OC and marked paid collection. never had an account with this new OC EVER!!!After some research I found that the new OC listed on my TU report bought all the charge accounts that were in good standing with the original OC. The alleged account I allegedly owe was charged off and sold BEFORE the new OC bought the other accounts from the original OC. Isn't this FRAUD? How can they verify an account they have never had? Do I send them a DV? What violations? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ghacorp Posted March 9, 2005 Report Share Posted March 9, 2005 It's entirely legal to trade accounts at any time. While in good standing creditor is a holder in due course. After profit and loss writeoff creditors would not be considered holders in due course. Junk debt buyers often attempt to get debtors to believe they have full rights to the obligations they purchase often trying to convince people the credit card agreement is still in effect, etc. and this of course is NOT TRUE! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hannah Posted March 10, 2005 Author Report Share Posted March 10, 2005 I am being sued by the jdb. The original OC was xxxxbank. After xxxxbank sold their deliquent debt to the jdb, they sold their accounts in good standing to two different cc companies, Chase, and Bank One. Chase is now verifying with cra's and NEVER had my alleged account at all as it was sold before Chase purchased the accounts in good standing! The original oc is not in business anymore. Is it fraud for Chase to do so? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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