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Is it legally binding?


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I just recently got a new house and because of my husband's credit, he is not on the loan agreement. If we have a letter notorized saying the even though DH is not on the loan agreement, he agrees to be jointly responsible for paying off the entire balance of the mortgage, is that legally binding in court?

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In what context are you inquiring if it is legally binding? Are you trying to increase your husbands credit by attaching him to the loan? Why would the agreement need to be legally binding in court?

I am a newbie so if the question is already answered by common knowledge of people on this board I apologize.

Gettinout

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