mamalady Posted August 15, 2005 Report Share Posted August 15, 2005 hello all,i know that keeping utilization low is important. so are the scoring models considering total avaliable credit vs utilization or is it based on individual accounts? like if i have one card with 60% utilization, and another 2 CCs with 2%. is the 60% utilization weighing more heavily on my score? or is it looking at my total available credit which i would only be using about 25% of?did that make sense? i hope so. thanks! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nativechild48 Posted August 15, 2005 Report Share Posted August 15, 2005 It is better to try to equalize the utilization. While we tend to jump for the lowest apr., FICO looks at the overall pattern, and will say your use is low, moderate, or high utilization of a given card. Try to equalize the credit of each card. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
madcrapper Posted August 17, 2005 Report Share Posted August 17, 2005 Take your total available of all revolving credit accounts, lets say $10,000. Also lets say among all of your cards your balance adds up to $2500, your utilzation would be roughly 25%. In other words, take the total of all. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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