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Is this a Violation


tammi
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I am working on my DH credit repair. I sent a DV to CBCS on 12/20/05. They received it on 12/23/05. I received a letter from them (seems like the first letter they should send out before sending to CRA's) dated 12/14/05. My question: Is this a violation because they sent the 1st letter after they had already put their TL on his credit report (at least Aug 2005)?

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No that is not validation. If they stated that it is a validation letter then resend your DV letter stating that the information they provided was not proof of validation. There are many fine examples of such letters throughout this forum.

Once you send the DV letter give them about 60 days to respond. If you do not agree with the Validation information they send you, send a third letter stating that you dispute the debt and remind them that they must inform the CRA's that you are disputing the collection.

If they do provide proper validation, IE they can prove you owe the money, I would send a letter, a very polite letter, to the Original Creditor asking them to remove the debt from collection if you pay it with interest. This sometimes works if you have never before received any billings from the OC.

Mostly though, if the debt is yours, you can choose to pay it or not, but either way in seven years, from the date of original deliquency, the trade line will remain on your credit report. If you pay it, the seven year clock starts over.

Good luck.

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