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FCRA 616 - Do you need to know who did it?


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One of my allegations is that pulled my credit report without permissible purpose in violation of FCRA 616(B). I'm a bit confused though - it says 'a natural person who obtains...under false pretenses...is liable to the consumer for acutal damages or $1000...'

Do I have to be able to prove what specific individual at the firm did it or just that an agent of the firm did it? If the former, are the CA's records going to be the only thing that would show the specific individual?

Thanks,

Nef

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