CantCU Posted April 3, 2007 Report Share Posted April 3, 2007 With all the help I am receiving here, I am now starting to assist my daughter with her credit.In yesterday's mail, she received a letter (1st notice from CA) for an old medical bill. Not sure of exact date of treatment but I know it was either 1998 or 1999. SOL has definitely run. I immediately DV'd via fax and CMRRR.This letter mentioned that the debt was assigned by the OC. I am assuming by the terminology that it was not purchased by the CA (NCC) but they are just attempting to collect for the OC. Am I right on this? Does it really make any difference who owns the debt in the larger scheme of things since they are barred by SOL?The main concern I have for this bill is that it truly is not hers...it's MINE! At the time of the treatment, she was a minor...thus, as the mom, I am the one who is responsible, but we won't even go there at this point. She never signed any documents for treatment, I did. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
divemedic Posted April 3, 2007 Report Share Posted April 3, 2007 The CA's are deliberately confusing this issue.A CA can be assigned to collect a debt. In this case, the CA is under a contract to collect on behalf of the OC.If the debt has been assigned, it means that it has been sold. The CA is then called the assignee or the assign. The OC is the assignor.in either event, who cares? If the SOL and reporting period has run, send them a FOAD letter. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
qtptute Posted April 3, 2007 Report Share Posted April 3, 2007 With all the help I am receiving here, I am now starting to assist my daughter with her credit.In yesterday's mail, she received a letter (1st notice from CA) for an old medical bill. Not sure of exact date of treatment but I know it was either 1998 or 1999. SOL has definitely run. I immediately DV'd via fax and CMRRR.This letter mentioned that the debt was assigned by the OC. I am assuming by the terminology that it was not purchased by the CA (NCC) but they are just attempting to collect for the OC. Am I right on this? Does it really make any difference who owns the debt in the larger scheme of things since they are barred by SOL?The main concern I have for this bill is that it truly is not hers...it's MINE! At the time of the treatment, she was a minor...thus, as the mom, I am the one who is responsible, but we won't even go there at this point. She never signed any documents for treatment, I did.The CA may have been assigned the debt, but they have a purchasers value. It's kind of like an accounting term, I think. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CantCU Posted April 3, 2007 Author Report Share Posted April 3, 2007 So am I wrong to DV first and see what they have in the way of documentation? (too late, I've already sent it). I do plan to tell the FOAD. This one will be fun. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kevin3344 Posted April 3, 2007 Report Share Posted April 3, 2007 (edited) So am I wrong to DV first and see what they have in the way of documentation? Not at all, especially since you're within the first 30 days.________VAPORIZERINFO Edited September 9, 2011 by kevin3344 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CantCU Posted April 3, 2007 Author Report Share Posted April 3, 2007 Not at all, especially since you're within the first 30 days.WOOHOO...I just LOVE this site! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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