TwoFaced Posted April 21, 2007 Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 So if a judge agrees that you are not responsible for a debt in a court of law....with prejuduce...does a collector have to remove it from you credit report.I am curious to know?TwoFaced Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
direred Posted April 21, 2007 Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 It'd generally be considered Good Form.Continued collection activity and all that. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cjtx Posted April 21, 2007 Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 It depends on why you're not responsible for the debt.Is it because it was out of SOL? In that case they can still report it until the 7 year reporting period expires.Is it because of ID theft/you were only an AU, etc. Ideally they should remove it, though you might have to fight it. If they continue updating balances, late payments, account status, etc. THEN it will be considered continued collection activity. You may sue for defamation of character, FDCPA, damages, etc. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TwoFaced Posted April 21, 2007 Author Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 Just curious is all....Lets say they have not contractor proper agreement from OC.I understand that SOL is still reportable, that is totally understandable, I was generally curious if you went to court and did not use the SOL but attack there actual right to collect legally. In my mind, if you prove they dont have the legal write to collect on that debt, shouldnt it have to be removed from your CR?Just thinking and wondering is all.Thanks,TwoFaced Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cjtx Posted April 21, 2007 Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 Dispute it with the CRAs, ask the CA to remove it and if they keep reporting it and you can show they have no legal right to collect, sue them. Wash, rinse and repeat until it's clean. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TwoFaced Posted April 21, 2007 Author Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 OK...so here is another...How can a negative be report 2 times on a credit report for the same account?Example:It is reported by LetMeTakeYourMonies Mastercard reportsthenJDB or CA also reporting negative on the same accountJust curious how that is legal, it is the same account?Its like Double Jeopardy.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Big Time Posted April 21, 2007 Report Share Posted April 21, 2007 The OC can only report it as a zero balance once they sell it, but they can still report the TL.The JDB who buys it can also report (as long as they do so legally) but can't re-age it in any way. If you left both TL's alone, they should both fall off your reports at the same time. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TwoFaced Posted April 22, 2007 Author Report Share Posted April 22, 2007 Exactly what I mean, two different NEGATIVE tradelines for one account....isnt something wrong with that picture? One debt, one tradeline, one negative report....I actually sent this question to the FTC, all 3 CRA, and my AG by email for why is this allowed...since 2 negative tradelines hurt more than one. I am interested in seeing what they have to say.TwoFaced Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cjtx Posted April 22, 2007 Report Share Posted April 22, 2007 From the OC's point of view, a charge-off can still be reported for 7 years even if OC got a tax write off as a loss or if it sold it to a CA or it got its money somehow. OCs are not supposed to update anything after they transfer the debt.From the CA's point of view, the account was transferred/assigned to them and they can report your payment history with them and they can continue to report it for 7 years from the date of your last activity with the OC.So, even though it's 2 negatives, their reporting dates do not overlap (or shouldn't). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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