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Does a CA have a time frame in which to report to CRA's


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Great question, I'm curious too.


It seems that it would be accurate reporting if they retained accurate records of when the account was placed with them, and when it was paid in full.

But here's a follow up question that you may too be interest in deltadawn:

Does a collection account have a different fall off date than an original tradeline.

Say acct was CO in 01, and CA was paid in 03. Can the OC CO only be reported for the 7 yrs, and the CA an additional 2?

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From the FCRA 1681c, Subsection 605

"...(a) Information excluded from consumer reports...

(1) Cases under...the Bankruptcy Act that, from the date of entry of the order for relief or the date of adjudication, as the case may be, antedate the report by more than 10 years.

(2) Civil suits, civil judgments, and records of arrest that from date of entry, antedate the report by more than seven years or until the governing statute of limitations has expired, whichever is the longer period.

(3) Paid tax liens which, from date of payment, antedate the report by more than seven years.

(4) Accounts placed for collection or charged to profit and loss which antedate the report by more than seven years.

(5) Any other adverse item of information, other than records of convictions of crimes which antedates the report by more than seven years...

© Running of reporting period.

(1) In general. The 7-year period...shall begin, with respect to any delinquent account that is placed for collection...charged to profit and loss, or subjected to any similar action, upon the expiration of the 180-day period beginning on the date of the commencement of the delinquency which immediately preceded the collection activity, charge to profit and loss, or similar action..."

So, all accounts must be suppressed at the end of 7 years plus 180 days from the 'beginning of the commencement of the delinquency'.

As for the original question: There is no law which requires or compels credit reporting. The FCRA details that IF something is reporting, then it must be accurate. In your scenario, IF the CA chooses to report at all, they would have to report the paid collection. But no one HAS to. Another fact: It costs client/subscribers to report. They may not be willing to incur this expense since the account has been paid. Can they? Yes. Will they? Only they know for sure. Keep your fingers crossed. And fight it if they do... :)

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