Phillip Ray Posted December 13, 2008 Report Share Posted December 13, 2008 I'm the non-occupant co-signer on lease. Occupant defaulted on obligation.I rec'd a letter from CA. I wrote CA a DV letter. Was sent back copies originally signed with landlord. The exact wording of "or it's assigns" was not in the contract, nor proof of assignment or purchase. Before I could fully investigate with CRA's I received another letter from CA 12 days after initial DV letter. That I think is a violation of FDCPA. How should I move forward? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fairy Enchantress Posted December 15, 2008 Report Share Posted December 15, 2008 Look through the FDCPA to see if it is a violation.http://www.creditinfocenter.com/legal/FDCPA.shtmlHere is a list you can sue for. If you catch them on several violations maybe they will drop the collections. You do want to catch them on as many violations as possible.Repair Your Credit by Suing Credit Bureaus and Creditors For $1,000s!http://www.creditinfocenter.com/eBooks/PoorMansClassActionLawsuit.shtmlAfter verifing their violations you would send them a letter notifing them of their violation and you will sue if they do not remove the account ect. Or just take them to court. Usually they will want to avoid court and remove the account. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
willingtocope Posted December 15, 2008 Report Share Posted December 15, 2008 If it truly is just a CA...they don't own the debt so "purchase" or "assign" has no bearing. They sent you proof you signed for the lease. I'm thinking you're stuck. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts