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OC failed to DV, now CA is reporting


rm2738
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HSBC failed to validate. They even sent me a letter stating that they will delete from CRs and all phone communication will cease. Now it's being reported by a CA on my credit report!

If the OC failed to validate and I have documentation from them that they could not provide the proper paperwork or documentation, can they pass the debt along to an CA?

Does anyone have a reference as to what the FTC defines "Collection Attempts" or "Collection Activity" as? I'm only finding a whole slew of opinions and can not find citable sources.

Thanks in advance.

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A decision to not validate is not a failure or inability to validate.

That aside, an OC does not have to respond to a request for validation (or are you referring to a request for a 623 investigation?).

Is this truly a CA that is reporting on behalf of the OC or has the OC sold the debt and this CA either the actual subsequent debt owner and/or acting on behalf of the subsequent debt holder?

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