Hugo Posted March 11, 2011 Report Share Posted March 11, 2011 (edited) Could someone illegally make a payment on another person's account or a written promise to pay on a barred debt in order to unscrupulously reage the debt? I am referring to anyone, whether a collections agency employee or an average citizen. I could just hear an attorney saying to me "I'll give you the bad new first. The burden of proof is on you."Alternatively, what if someone, a family member for instance, in good will, decided to make a payment on an out of statute debt without your kowledge or consent? Edited March 12, 2011 by Hugo Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
willingtocope Posted March 12, 2011 Report Share Posted March 12, 2011 Some of the more aggressive CAs do that all the time...report a payment made, when there wasn't one. It doesn't affect the "date of first delinquincy" on your credit report unless the debt is brought current....but it may affect the "statue of limitations" for your state depending on your state laws. The former you can just ignore...the latter you would have to fight in court.If a friend made a payment...the same logic applies. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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