gaconbuld

Foreclosure now sending letters for payment after 9years?

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Hi all I'm new to this. Got Divorced in 2002, ex stayed in home with new girlfriend was going to keep it, he did not. I could not afford it so Bombardier Capital came and got it. Yes a mobile home. I just recieved a letter from ARA stating that they have taken over Bombardier Capital's obligations regarding this debt and interest and fees for $69,034.99 ( the home was not even valued at that as I am sure they resold it too). I recieved a call from them 1 week ago while I was working and was told that if I paid like $1700.00 they would consider this debt paid in full they were also going to contact the ex to see if he wanted to settle also in that amount. Then I was told if he settled and I did not they would go after me for the full amount and suppeno (lol) me to court over it. Really do not know what to do or if this is even legal, for me to just pay that amount with a gurantee that they will not come to me for more. I know for a fact that he will not pay. None of this shows on my credit report as I have monitered it for the last 5 years and I have worked really hard to have good credit. Also I do not have a judgement against me on this either and never have.

If I only knew then what I know now..............

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Even if there were not things like rules of evidence and statute of limitations all you need to know that they are full of it is the fact they claim you owe 69K and will settle, right out of the gate with no discussion, for $1,700.00.

Also they are trying to make joint and several liability a lot more complicated than it is.

I agree, don't fall for it.

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If my memory serves me correctly, a lender in Florida has five years from the date of the foreclosure sale to seek a judgment deficiency.

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I know you are right jq26 for a regular foreclosure in Fl.

The OP had a F/C on a mobile home - wouldn't it make a difference if the mobile home was on a lot that the OP owned or a lot they are renting?

In other words, would it still fall under the deficiency laws if there is no land associated with the F/C as it would appear in the case where the lot is rented and not owned? I don't know how the property was titled in the original post.

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Would this actually be considered a foreclosure? My mobile home has a title like a car, from the DMV, not a deed.

Exactly.

OP, do you still have the land?

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