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CA (not JDB) and OC both reporting debt on cr.


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This is a first for me. It is quite common that a JDB will list its own tl for a debt they bought but I've never seen a CA list a tl along with the OC's tl.

The OC's tl is not listed as sold or transfered although it does have a zero balance. It is listed as a "collections account".

The CA's account has a balance and here are some of the more interesting listings:

Loan Type: Collection Agency Attorney

Remark: >Placed for collection <

Pay Status: >Collection Account<

It also lists the Original Creditor.

Am I correct in assuming that the OC has not sold the account? There is a zero balance but nowhere in any of my cr's does it say sold or transfer or anything of the like.

Can a CA list an account with a balance and still not own the tl? Doesn't seem quite right to me.

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This is a first for me. It is quite common that a JDB will list its own tl for a debt they bought but I've never seen a CA list a tl along with the OC's tl.

The OC's tl is not listed as sold or transfered although it does have a zero balance. It is listed as a "collections account".

The CA's account has a balance and here are some of the more interesting listings:

Loan Type: Collection Agency Attorney

Remark: >Placed for collection <

Pay Status: >Collection Account<

It also lists the Original Creditor.

Am I correct in assuming that the OC has not sold the account? There is a zero balance but nowhere in any of my cr's does it say sold or transfer or anything of the like.

Can a CA list an account with a balance and still not own the tl? Doesn't seem quite right to me.

It appears the OC still owns the account. Yes, CAs are allowed to report. Our credit reports are a history of accounts, and a collection is part of that history.

I know...it sucks. :(

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A $0 balance is almost certainly an indication the account has been sold.

That's what I always thought.

The reports I got were from the Big 3. I know the 3in1's are notoriously inaccura but the Big 3 have their problems as well. TransUnion is the report I quoted from where both tl's are listed...the CA's with a balance and the OC's with a zero balance.

The other two just list the CA's account but references the OC as the OC.

I just can't understand the CA listing a balance and the OC listing a zero balance if the OC still owns the debt.

The CA had fallen silent for 2 1/2 years but I recently received a new dunning letter from them. Nowhere do they list the OC in their letter.

This all seems a little strange to me. Suggestions?

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I suppose I could just as well do a 623 dispute because that's pretty much the same thing as asking the OC. The difference would be that there is an official stimulus for them to answer or else face possible violations.

I was looking for a unofficial way I could snoop around to find out what everybody is doing before I actually jumped into the matter. There isn't much info on the web. The searches come up with a lot of hits from credit bureaus as the CA's name uses these words in their name.

I did authenticate that they are a CA and not a JDB. That's why I'm perplexed as to why they are reporting as if they were a JDB.

I guess, for lack of a better idea, that I'll draft up a 623 dispute and send it to both the OC and the CA since they both have tl's concerning the same account. They both have to answer me else face FDCR violations.

Still open to ideas as to why a CA is reporting along with the OC and the OC's account balance is zero. Just does not sound like a CA reporting.

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